Chat with us, powered by LiveChat question bank | Gen Paper
+1(978)310-4246 credencewriters@gmail.com
  

Product Concepts

15. A(n)
_____ is a concept, philosophy, or image.
a) product
b) good
c) idea
d) service
e) issue

16. MADD
(Mothers Against Drunk Driving) is a nonprofit organization that primarily
markets
a) services.
b) ideas.
c) goods.
d) tangible
products.
e) features.

17. According
to the text, a product is defined as
a) anything
the customer receives in an exchange.
b) the
physical object the customer receives in an exchange.
c) the
service that is rendered to a customer.
d) the
idea that the customer receives in an exchange.
e) goods
and services the customer receives in an exchange.

18. To
make intangible products more tangible or real to the consumer, marketers often
a) use
low prices on intangible goods.
b) use
symbols or cues to help symbolize product benefits.
c) use
external reference prices.
d) use
multiple channels of distribution.
e) offer
more support services with such products.

19. Which
of the following best illustrates how a firm can use a symbol to make an
intangible product more tangible?
a) McDonald’s
arches
b) Mercedes
Benz emblem
c) Nike
swoosh
d) Traveler’s
Insurance umbrella
e) Arrows
on Wrigley gum packages

20. A
light bulb can be considered all of the following except
a) a
consumer product.
b) a
business product.
c) either
a consumer product or a business product.
d) a
business product if it is used to light an assembly line in a factory.
e) a
consumer product if it is used to light the office of the board of directors.

21. Products
are classified as being business or consumer products according to the
a) goals
of the organization.
b) buyer’s
intended use of the product.
c) seller’s
intended use of the product.
d) location
of use.
e) types
of outlets from which they are purchased.

22. Which
of the following is always used to determine the classification of a good?
a) Buyer’s
intent for using the product
b) Amount
of shopping required by the buyer to obtain the product
c) Price
of the product
d) Specific
product features
e) Industry
competitors

23. Megan
Avakian, who works as a purchasing agent for Greyhound Transport, buys
carpeting for use in an office area at Greyhound. What determines whether this
carpeting is a consumer or a business product?
a) Price
b) Selling
organization
c) Terms
of the sale
d) Buyer’s
intended use of the product
e) Benefits
the product provides

24. Which
of the following is most likely to be considered a convenience good?
a) A
lamp
b) A
haircut
c) Running
shoes
d) Gatorade
e) Concert
tickets purchased online

25. Energizer
batteries would be classified as which type of product?
a) Convenience
b) Shopping
c) Specialty
d) Unsought
e) Industrial
service

26. Products
which are relatively inexpensive and frequently purchased with minimal effort
are classified as ___________ products.
a) shopping
b) convenience
c) industrial
d) specialty
e) unsought

27. Dannon
Yogurt represents what type of product for most consumers?
a) Convenience
b) Business
c) Shopping
d) Specialty
e) Durable

28. Convenience
products are
a) relatively
inexpensive, frequently purchased items for which buyers exert only minimal
purchasing effort.
b) frequently
purchased items for which buyers are willing to exert considerable effort.
c) frequently
purchased items that are found in certain retail outlets.
d) items
that are expensive but are easy to purchase.
e) items
that require some purchase planning and for which the buyer often will not
accept substitutes.

29. Which
of the following statements does not apply to convenience goods?
a) Consumers
are brand loyal to convenience products and are not likely to substitute other
brands.
b) Convenience
products require minimal shopping effort.
c) Marketing
of convenience products requires intensive exposure of these goods in as many
stores as possible.
d) Consumers
tend to feel that the most desirable retail facility for convenience products
is the closest one.
e) Colas,
gasoline, and bread are good examples of convenience goods.

30. Products
for which buyers are willing to spend much time comparing stores and brands for
differences in prices, product features, and services are called ______
products.
a) shopping
b) specialty
c) service
d) convenience
e) unsought

31. Shannon
Hill needed to buy an airline ticket to visit her parents. She called several
airlines to compare rates and chose a flight on Southwest Air Lines because,
for comparable prices, it had a better reputation for service. For Shannon,
this flight is an example of which type of product?
a) Shopping
b) Convenience
c) Specialty
d) Unsought
e) Industrial

32. Gap
clothing stores sell primarily what type of products?
a) Convenience
b) Shopping
c) Unsought
d) Nondurable
e) Specialty

33. Shopping
products have a _____ inventory turnover and need _____ distribution outlets
than convenience goods.
a) similar;
more
b) higher;
fewer
c) higher;
more
d) lower;
more
e) lower;
fewer

34. Buyers
do not compare alternatives when shopping for ______ products.
a) convenience
b) specialty
c) shopping
d) unique
e) unsought

35. The
Carsons are going on a vacation back to Texas. When they lived there, Gwen
Carson loved Blue Bell Cookies. Blue Bell is sold only in Texas. She plans to
buy two boxes at the first store she visits after they arrive. For Gwen, Blue
Bell represents a(n) ___________ product.
a) convenience
b) shopping
c) specialty
d) unsought
e) durable

36. A
specialty product
a) requires
minimal effort to purchase.
b) is
purchased frequently.
c) requires
purchase planning, and the buyer will not accept substitutes.
d) is
generally less expensive than other items in the same product class.
e) prompts
the purchaser to make comparisons among alternatives.

37. David
Wilson is an avid collector of Major League Baseball memorabilia. He greatly
desires to own the “special” bat that got the slugger Sammy Sosa a seven-game
suspension due to its illegal contents. This is an example of a(n) ______
product.
a) shopping
b) unique
c) specialty
d) historical
e) unsought

38. As
Beth and Rob Barker search for a new home, they are interested only in houses
built by a particular builder. This purchase is characteristic of a(n)
___________ product.
a) convenience
b) unsought
c) disposable
d) shopping
e) specialty

39. When
a sudden problem confronts a consumer, such as emergency automobile repair, he
or she is likely going to view solutions to that problem as
a) specialty
products.
b) installations.
c) unsought
products.
d) shopping
products.
e) convenience
products.

40. Nick
Arnold’s Auto Towing Service would best be described as a(n) __________ product.
a) convenience
b) unsought
c) specialty
d) durable
e) shopping

41. Business
products are
a) purchased
for personal consumption.
b) chosen
on the basis of preferences expressed by a business procurement department.
c) purchased
for both their functional aspects and their psychological rewards.
d) classified
according to their characteristics and intended uses.
e) not
purchased by nonbusiness organizations.

42. Facilities,
factories, and production lines with very large equipment are all classified as
a) accessory
equipment.
b) permanents.
c) installations.
d) component
parts.
e) MRO
facilities.

43. Tojitos
Mexican Restaurant purchased several large ovens for use in remodeling its
kitchens. These ovens are an example of which type of business product?
a) Raw
materials
b) Installations
c) Accessory
equipment
d) Component
parts
e) Process
materials

44. As
the production manager of an engineering firm, you went out and bought a metal
cutting machine. What you have purchased can best be classified as a
a) raw
material.
b) processed
component.
c) component
part.
d) service.
e) business
product.

45. An
accountant buys a supply of pencils to be used in calculating the taxes of other
business firms. Based on this information, pencils in this case would be
considered what type of product?
a) Business
b) Process
materials
c) Raw
material
d) Convenience
e) Consumer

46. Which
of the following is not a business product?
a) Oil
to be refined into fuel
b) Chips
to be integrated into components for personal computers
c) Paper,
pens, and tape to be used in an office
d) Marketing
consulting services to aid a company in marketing a new product
e) Calculators
bought to help individuals complete their personal federal income tax forms

47. Large
tools and machines used in a production process for a considerable length of
time are classified as
a) installations.
b) accessory
equipment.
c) component
parts.
d) raw
materials.
e) MRO
supplies.

48. Business
products are classified into the following seven categories according to
characteristics and intended uses: raw materials, installations, accessory
equipment, component parts, process materials, business services, and
a) production
activities.
b) service
assistance.
c) specialty
industrial products.
d) computer
programming and operation services.
e) MRO
supplies.

49. Minerals,
chemicals, timber, and agricultural products are considered
a) process
materials.
b) accessory
materials.
c) MRO
supplies.
d) component
parts.
e) raw
materials.

50. A
distributor of plumbing supplies purchases a desktop computer to aid in
inventory control. This computer is an example of which type of business
product?
a) Raw
material
b) Installations
c) Accessory
equipment
d) Component
part
e) Process
material

51. Although
they become part of a larger product, _______ can often be easily identified
and distinguished on the larger product.
a) component
parts
b) accessory
parts
c) raw
materials
d) process
materials
e) MRO
supplies

52. Business
products that are purchased routinely, do not become part of finished goods,
and are expense items rather than capital goods are called
a) raw
materials.
b) installations.
c) accessory
equipment.
d) component
parts.
e) process
materials.

53. A
set of Bose car speakers sold to Ford for use in the production of a hybrid
Escape, would be an example of a(n)
a) component
part.
b) specialty
item.
c) accessory
equipment.
d) raw
material.
e) process
material.

54. The
intangible products that most organizations use in their operations are called
a) component
parts.
b) MRO
supplies.
c) process
ideas.
d) business
services.
e) installations.

55. Products
used directly in the production of a final product but are not easily identifiable
are categorized as
a) accessory
products.
b) component
parts.
c) MRO
supplies.
d) assembly
components.
e) process
materials.

56. A
product item is best described as a
a) component
of a marketing mix.
b) particular
brand.
c) specific
characteristic of a product.
d) specific
version of a product.
e) unit
of measure for the product.

57. Sara
Lee Corporation manufactures desserts, breads, pantyhose, meats, and a variety
of other products. These products make up Sara Lee’s product
a) line.
b) item.
c) mix.
d) width.
e) depth.

58. A
product line is defined as
a) products
that can be designated as a unique offering among the organization’s products.
b) products
that an organization makes available to consumers.
c) a
group of closely related products that are considered a unit because of
marketing, technical, or end-use considerations.
d) a
specific group of products that are offered to the market.
e) products
that are sold by the same firm or a division of a firm.

59. Brunswick’s
bowling balls, bowling bags, and shoes are individual product ___________ for
this sporting goods manufacturer.
a) menus
b) mixes
c) lines
d) life
cycles
e) ensembles

60. A
product mix is best described as
a) all
products offered by a firm.
b) product,
distribution, promotion, and price.
c) many
products sold by one firm.
d) all
products of a particular type.
e) a
group of closely related products that are considered a unit because of market,
technical, or end-use considerations.

61. Procter
& Gamble makes at least eight different laundry detergents. This is most
relevant to the issue of
a) width
of product mix.
b) product
mix consistency.
c) depth
of product mix.
d) a
market mix.
e) a
promotion mix.

62. The
depth of a product mix is measured by the average number of
a) convenience
products as compared with the number of specialty products.
b) different
product lines offered by the company.
c) different
products offered in each product line.
d) specialty
products as compared with the number of convenience products.
e) product
features that the company offers.

63. Hershey
Foods Corp. offers a line of candy that includes Kit Kat, Mr.Goodbar, Krackel,
Hershey’s Kisses, Reese’s Peanut Butter
Cups, Rolo, and Twizzlers. These candies best illustrate Hershey’s product mix
a) width.
b) depth.
c) length.
d) volume.
e) life
cycle.

64. One
company markets such diverse products as Rosarita Mexican foods, Max Factor
cosmetics, and Samsonite luggage. These various offerings exhibit this firm’s
product mix
a) width.
b) depth.
c) length.
d) volume.
e) dimension.

65. What
measure of the product mix involves the number of product lines a company
offers?
a) Quality
b) Consistency
c) Depth
d) Width
e) Size

66. The
width of a product mix is measured by the number of product
a) dimensions
in the product line.
b) features
in each brand.
c) items
in the product line.
d) lines
a company offers.
e) specialties
a company offers.

67. The
four major stages of a product life cycle include
a) prosperity,
recession, depression, and recovery.
b) specialty,
convenience, shopping, and unsought goods.
c) decline,
stabilization, exposure, and growth.
d) introduction,
growth, maturity, and decline.
e) awareness,
interest, trial, and adoption.

68. Sales
start at zero and profits are negative during the ____ stage of the product
life cycle.
a) decline
b) growth
c) initial
d) maturity
e) introduction

69. During
the introduction stage of a successful product, profits are usually
a) at
their highest point.
b) negative
and decreasing.
c) negative
and increasing.
d) positive
and increasing.
e) declining.

70. Which
of the following is the most typical example of a new product introduction?
a) Pringles
sold in snack-sized containers
b) A
brand-new nut discovered in Africa
c) A
car that uses no oil or gasoline
d) Shoes
that literally make you run faster
e) A
device that cools your car while parked outside

71. In
which stage of the product life cycle do profits peak?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Decline
d) Termination
e) Maturity

72. An
ad that stresses “Get the real Proactiv Solution; accept no substitutes!” is
best geared for which stage of the product life cycle?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Stabilization
d) Expansion
e) Decline

73. In
which stage of the product life cycle do profits begin to decrease?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
e) Recovery

74. Which
stage of the product life cycle begins when a business reaches the breakeven
point with the product?
a) Maturity
b) Growth
c) Introduction
d) Market
testing
e) Decline

75. Which
stage in the product life cycle is critical to a product’s survival because
competitive reactions to the product’s success during this period will affect
the product’s life expectancy?
a) Decline
b) Expansion
c) Growth
d) Introduction
e) Stabilization

76. During
the growth stage of the product life cycle, marketers must
a) fortify
the product position.
b) move
to exclusive distribution.
c) raise
the price.
d) increase
promotion as a percentage of sales.
e) introduce
private brands.

77. Aggressive
pricing is typical during the ___________ stage of the product life cycle.
a) decline
b) growth
c) introduction
d) plateau
e) stabilization

78. Achieving
greater penetration of the market is typically a business goal during the
___________ stage of the product life cycle.
a) maturity
b) growth
c) introduction
d) market
testing
e) decline

79. Which
of the following tactics would typically be employed when a product is in the
growth stage of its life cycle?
a) Lowering
prices after developmental costs have been recovered
b) Raising
promotion expenditures as a percentage of total sales
c) Moving
from intensive to selective distribution
d) Raising
prices to encourage competitors to enter the market
e) Reducing
the number of product models in the product line

80. When
a business finds itself squeezed out of a market for a product or loses
interest in that product, it is a sign of being in the ___________ stage of the
product life cycle.
a) maturity
b) growth
c) introduction
d) market
reduction
e) decline

81. During
the maturity stage
a) product
modifications are unnecessary.
b) there
is less emphasis on changing a product’s price.
c) marketing
strategies are rarely altered.
d) some
competitors are forced out.
e) limited
advertising expenditures are required to maintain market share.

82. Heinz
promoting its vinegar as an effective cleaner for wall, glass, and kitchen and
bathroom surfaces would most likely be a strategy for the _____ stage of the
product life cycle.
a) introduction
b) decline
c) growth
d) maturity
e) competitive

83. Which
stage of the product life cycle is characterized by intense competition?
a) Decline
b) Plateau
c) Introduction
d) Maturity
e) Stabilization

84. When
banks add new services during the maturity stage, the objective they are most
likely trying to achieve is
a) pruning
items from the product line.
b) generating
cash flow.
c) maintaining
their market share.
d) filling
geographic gaps.
e) increasing
their share of the customer.

85. A
common business objective of the ___________ stage of the product life cycle is
to generate cash flow.
a) maturity
b) growth
c) introduction
d) market
reduction
e) decline

86. Sales
usually start to decline during the __________ stage of the product life cycle.
a) beginning
of the termination
b) end
of the growth
c) beginning
of the decline
d) beginning
of the growth
e) end
of the maturity

87. When
Clorox introduced bleach in a no-drip bottle, the firm was taking action
consistent with its product being in the ___________ stage of the product life
cycle.
a) introduction
b) growth
c) stabilization
d) maturity
e) decline

88. A
change in package size is a strategy that can help boost sales in the
___________ stage of the product life cycle.
a) maturity
b) growth
c) introduction
d) market
reduction
e) decline

89. Which
of the following stages of the product life cycle is likely to see dealers
offered promotional assistance from the producer?
a) Maturity
b) Growth
c) Introduction
d) Market
reduction
e) Decline

90. A
company wanting to maintain market share during the maturity stage requires
moderate to large
a) advertising
expenditures.
b) distribution
expenditures.
c) production
expenditures.
d) price
increases.
e) packaging
modifications.

91. The
producers of Schick razor blades use a marketing strategy that includes large
advertising expenditures and more price flexibility for the various types of
blades offered. Based on this example, razor blades are in the ___________
stage of the product life cycle.
a) decline
b) evaluation
c) growth
d) introduction
e) maturity

92. Cadillac
recognized it needed to revitalize its brand and attract different market
segments. These are indications that Cadillac’s products were primarily in the
______ stage of the product life cycle.
a) maturity
b) growth
c) introduction
d) market
testing
e) decline

93. Dish
Network satellite TV cut back advertising expenditures to minimum levels and
reduced the number of channel members for its industrial satellite product.
These actions indicate that its product is in the ___________ stage of its life
cycle.
a) introduction
b) growth
c) maturity
d) early
e) decline

94. During
the decline stage of the product life cycle,
a) sales
rapidly decrease.
b) market
share is maintained.
c) competition
is at a peak.
d) profits
begin to fall.
e) profits
peak and then begin to decline.

95. The
stage of the product life cycle when marketers consider eliminating products
that are not contributing to profitability or the overall effectiveness of a
product mix is the ____ stage.
a) maturity
b) decline
c) growth
d) introduction
e) reorganization

96. When
are marketers least likely to change a product’s design, style, or other
attributes?
a) Introduction
b) Maturity
c) Decline
d) Growth
e) Removal

97. Weyerhaeuser
is evaluating its complete product mix. It wishes to decrease some of its
marketing expenditures and streamline its product offerings. Weyerhaeuser will
most likely look at products in the _____ stage of the product life cycle as
possibilities for elimination.
a) not
yet developed
b) growth
c) introduction
d) maturity
e) decline

98. What
are a marketing manager’s two options during the decline stage?
a) Reintroduce
the product to new markets or stop sales immediately
b) Speed
up the product’s decline or increase advertising
c) Attempt
to postpone the decline or accept its inevitability
d) Divesting
the brand or reinvesting in the brand
e) Accept
the decline or phase the product out

99. A
firm with a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle may decide
to gradually reduce marketing expenditures and realign its marketing mix to one
that requires fewer resources. This approach is called
a) harvesting.
b) investing.
c) realigning.
d) divesting.
e) mixing.

100. When
Sony realized its CD players were in the decline stage, it decided to
immediately withdraw all of its marketing support from these declining
products, an approach known as
a) harvesting.
b) divesting.
c) investing.
d) realigning.
e) squashing.

101. Which
of the following best defines the interest stage in the product adoption
process?
a) The
buyer tries to find the product in a retail store.
b) The
buyer considers the benefits and determines whether to try the product.
c) The
buyer tries the product to determine its usefulness.
d) The
buyer seeks information and is receptive to learning about the product.
e) The
buyer uses objective sources to learn about the product.

102. As
Jessica enters Best Buy’s car electronics department, she is asked by the
salesperson if she has seen the new plug-in cell phones with TV display. She answers that she didn’t know that this
type of phone accessory for cars was available.
Based on this information, she is now in what stage of the product
adoption process for this item?
a) Awareness
b) Interest
c) Evaluation
d) Trial
e) Adoption

103. Which
of the following is not a stage in the buyer’s product adoption process?
a) Awareness
b) Adoption
c) Trial
d) Exploration
e) Interest

104. When
Saturn offers to let qualified buyers test drive the new Saturn SKY roadster,
the dealer is trying to stimulate which stage of the product adoption process?
a) Awareness
b) Interest
c) Evaluation
d) Trial
e) Adoption

105. When
Minute Maid mailed out free samples of its new instant drink mix, it was trying
to move prospective customers into the ___________ stage of the product
adoption process.
a) awareness
b) interest
c) evaluation
d) trial
e) adoption

106. An
individual knows that a product exists, but has little information regarding
the product and does not seek additional information. In what stage of the
product adoption process is that person?
a) Trial
b) Adoption
c) Interest
d) Awareness
e) Evaluation

107. When
an individual considers whether a product will meet certain criteria that are
critical for meeting his or her needs, in what stage of the product adoption
process is this individual?
a) Interest
b) Awareness
c) Evaluation
d) Trial
e) Adoption

108. An
individual moves into the adoption stage of the adoption process at the point
when he or she
a) is
self-motivated to get information about the product.
b) begins
using that specific product.
c) seriously
considers whether the product will satisfy his or her needs.
d) experiences
the product for the first time.
e) becomes
aware that the product exists.

109. Depending
on the length of time it takes them to adopt a new product, people can be
divided into five major adopter categories: early adopters, early majority,
late majority, laggards, and
a) late
adopters.
b) nonadopters.
c) innovators.
d) middle
adopters.
e) middle
majority.

110. The
last group to adopt a new product, _________, is oriented toward the past and
is suspicious of new products.
a) non-adopters
b) laggards
c) innovators
d) late
adopters
e) late
majority

111. When
Jones’ Soda launched its Turkey Gravy flavored soda, it was hoping to take
advantage of the short-lived clear-products fad. By the time it launched the
soda, the fad for quirky soda flavors had already waned, and customers were no
longer clamoring for these type of products. The reason this product failed is
a) poor
timing.
b) the
company’s failure to match product offerings to customer needs.
c) ineffective
branding.
d) design
problems.
e) overestimation
of market size.

112. Frito-Lay,
which is widely known for producing chips and other snack products, tried to
introduce Frito-Lay lemonade. The reason this new product failed is likely
because of
a) poor
timing.
b) the
failure to match product offerings to customer needs.
c) technical
problems.
d) overestimation
of market size.
e) ineffective
branding.

113. All
of the following are reasons why new products fail except
a) overestimated
market size.
b) followed
a systematic plan.
c) distributed
insufficiently.
d) had
poor timing.
e) promoted
poorly.

114. The
difference between absolute and relative product failure is
a) absolute
product failure can be fixed by repositioning or improving the product, whereas
relative product failure is permanent.
b) relative
product failure loses money on its investment, whereas absolute product failure
returns a small profit.
c) relative
product failure is the result of poor timing, whereas absolute product failure
is the result of the lack of the ability to provide benefits that satisfy
customers’ desires.
d) absolute
product failure is caused by design problems, whereas relative product failure
is caused by poor promotion or distribution.
e) absolute
product failure results in a loss on the investment and is deleted from the
product mix, whereas relative product failure results in a small profit, and
improvements or repositioning can create success later.

Use the following to answer questions
115-118:

Gillette shaving razors were first
manufactured in 1895. Over the years,
Gillette made improvements on their razors offering many “firsts”
such as the Mach3, the Sensor, and the Fusion.
For many years, women were forced to use razors designed primarily for
men, but often marketed to women by offering them in different colors and with
minimal modifications. In 1998 Gillette
developed the Venus razor, based on the Mach3 but made specifically for women. Gillette promoted the Venus razor heavily,
with television ads and other forms of media.
The Gillette product line, now owned by Procter & Gamble, continues
to introduce new versions of the Venus, such as the Venus Embrace, which has
additional blades and other modifications.

115. Shaving
razors fall into which of the following classification of consumer products?
a) Convenience
products
b) Shopping
products
c) Substitute
products
d) Specialty
products
e) Accessory
equipment

116. When
Gillette developed the Venus razor in 1998, in which stage of the product life
cycle was the Venus?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Profit
d) Maturity
e) Decline

117.
Molly has been using a Bic disposable razor for her shaving needs for the last
ten years. She doesn’t really see the
need to spend more money on razors, but she sees that it is becoming more
difficult to find the Bic, and so she is considering the Venus Embrace. Molly is definitely not a(n) _______ in the
product adopter categories, and is more likely to be _____.
a) innovator;
an early adopter
b) early
adopter; an innovator
c) early
majority; an early adopter
d) innovator;
an early majority
e) innovator;
a late majority

118. Tasha
is shopping for personal care items at her local Target. She walks by one aisle and sees a
floor-standing display for the new Venus Embrace. She hadn’t thought about buying a new razor,
but the display has caught her attention.
Which stage of the product adoption process is Tasha most likely in at
the present time?
a) awareness
b) attention
c) evaluation
d) trial
e) adoption

Use the following to answer questions
119-122:

Megabus is a new line operating in the
Northeast and Midwestern United States, plus in Canada. It offers travelers a cheap alternative to
driving and flying between large cities, keeping the fares extremely low yet
offering the latest technology. Unlike
the traditional Greyhound Lines, Megabus is an express service, and is equipped
with Wi-Fi, video screens, headsets, and seat belts. Many buses also run on biodiesel fuel. Additionally, Megabus picks up and drops off
people in the centers of cities rather than at inconveniently-located
terminals. Patrons can book tickets at
Megabus.com, where some fares begin at just $1.
Routes are limited, and are offered out of cities such as Toronto, New
York, Baltimore, Philadelphia, and Chicago.
Recently, its competitor Greyhound, has launched two new bus lines,
BoltBus and NeOn, with similar fares and high-tech amenities. A fare on NeOn bus from Buffalo, NY to New
York City is $50.00 roundtrip, while the same fare through Greyhound’s
traditional bus line costs $92.00. The
benefit of Greynound’s traditional line is that there are more departure times
and more stops in smaller towns along the way.

119. What
product(s) is Megabus marketing?
a) Megabus
is a service and therefore is not marketing a product.
b) The
ride between cities is a service product and is the only one Megabus is
marketing.
c) The
ride between the cities, which is the core product, plus the supplemental
features of Wi-Fi, video screens, and other technology.
d) The
ride between cities, which is a convenience product.
e) The
ride between cities, which is a shopping product.

120. When
Greyhound launched the BoltBus and NeOn bus lines, this is an example of
a) a
branding extension.
b) co-branding.
c) an
extension in the width of the product mix.
d) an
extension in the depth of the product mix.
e) family
branding.

121. Casey
is searching the website of Megabus.com for the schedule and fares of a trip
between Buffalo, NY and New York City.
Case is most likely in which of the following stages of the product
adoption process?
a) adoption
b) trial
c) evaluation
d) interest
e) awareness

122. Megabus
is most likely in which of the following stages of the product life cycle?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
e) Rejection

error: Content is protected !!